Questions on Project Integration Management

1. Which process formally authorizes the project?
1. Receive project approval
2. Identify Project Manager
3. Develop preliminary project statement
4. Develop project charter
5. Develop project management plan


2. Develop project charter is part of which process group?
1. Initiation
2. Planning
3. Executing
4. Monitoring and Control


3. John Smith is a Project Manager for XYZ consultants. He has been asked to help choose one of the four potential project candidates. The management used Payback period technique for project selection. Which of the following projects should John recommend to the management.
1. Building an apartment. Project involves making an investment of $200,000. After six months, there will be monthly rental returns of $5000.
2. Building a bridge. Project involves making an investment of $1,000,000. After two years, there will be monthly returns via toll for the bridge of $50,000.
3. Building a house. Project involves making an investment of $500,000. After one year, there will be monthly rental returns of $10,000.
4. Building a school. Project involves making an investment of $500,000. After one year, there will be monthly returns via school fees of $50,000.


4. Alice Newland is a Project Manager for XYZ consultants. She has been asked to help choose one of the four potential project candidates. The management used internal rate of return technique for project selection. Which of the following projects should Alice recommend to the management.
1. Project A requires making an initial investment of $100,000 and will give monthly return of $5,000.
2. Project B requires making an initial investment of $200,000 and will give monthly return of $8,000.
3. Project C requires making an initial investment of $100,000 and will give annual return of $40,000.
4. Project D requires making an initial investment of $200,000 and will give annual return of $60,000.


5. Which of the following is not a process in the Project Integration Management process group?
1. Develop project charter
2. Close project or phase
3. Identify Project Manager
4. Monitor and Control Project work


6. XYZ Corporation is using weighted scoring model to select one project out of four projects. The importance criteria as well as ratings of four projects are given below. Which of the following projects will be selected?

Project weights

Criteria	Weight	Project A	Project B	Project C	Project D
Time to Market	2	6	6	2	4
Availability of resources	3	7	4	1	4
Sales potential	5	1	2	5	5
Fitment with other products	4	5	3	6	5

1. Project A
2. Project B
3. Project C
4. Project D


7. PQ Corporation is using Payback period to choose one project out of four options. Which of these projects should be selected by the company?

Payback period

Project Name	Initial investment	CAsh inflow per quarter
Project A	$200,000	$10,000
Project B	$100,000	$2,000
Project C	$400,000	$80,000
Project D	$500,000	$125,000

1. Project A
2. Project B
3. Project C
4. Project D


8. Which of the following is not true about project charter?
1. Project charter is written by the Project Manager.
2. Project charter defines the purpose of the project
3. Identify and authorizes the Project Manager
4. Project charter is authorized by Executive Management


9. Project A requires investment of $500,000. The project is expected to generate $25K per quarter for first year and $100K per quarter after that. What is the payback period
1. One year
2. Two years
3. Three years
4. Eight years


10. Chris is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing.
              PV=200
              EV=175
              AC=150
    What is the cost variance?
1. 25
2. -25
3. 50
4. -50


11. Chris is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing.
              PV=200
              EV=175
              AC=150
    What is the schedule variance?
1. 25
2. -25
3. 50
4. -50


12. Chris is performing Earned Value technique on the project that she is managing.
              PV=200
              EV=175
              AC=150
    What is CPI?
1. 1.33
2. 0.75
3. 1.14
4. 1.16

Answers

1. D. Develop project charter process formally authorizes the project and identifies the project manager.
2. A.
3. D. For option A, 46 months is the payback period. For option B, 44 months is the payback period. For option C, 62 months is the payback period. For option D, 22 months is the payback period. Building a school has the minimum payback period.
4. A. Project A has best internal rate of return of $60K annually for an investment of $100,000.
5. C. Identify Project Manager


6. D. A weighted average for all four projects is computed and one with highest weighted average is selected. For project D, the weighted average is (4*2) + (4*3) + (5*5) + (5*4). Total score for project D is 65. This is highest across all projects.
7. D. Project D requires four quarters to payback the investments. This is the minimum time when compared to other projects.
8. A
9. B. Payback period is eight quarters.
10. A. Cost variance is equal to Earned Value - Actual cost.


11. B. Schedule variance is equal to Earned value - Planned value.
12. D. Cost Performance Index = (Earned Value)/(Actual cost)

Questions on Project Procurement Management

1. The process of Administer procurements falls under which process group
1. Planning
2. Closing
3. Monitoring and Control
4. Executing


2. Sam Consultancy has a large internal project to be initiated. To staff this project, Sam Consultancy is working with People Consultancy to provide three resources for six months. The resources will be part of the team managed by Sam Consultancy for six months. Which contract type should be used by Sam Consultancy?
1. Purchase Order
2. Cost plus Fee
3. Fixed cost
4. Time and Material


3. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?
1. Purchase Order
2. Cost plus Fee
3. Fixed cost
4. Time and Material


4. Tree Consultancy is getting 200 computers installed from a vendor. The vendor will be paid the cost involved and a 10% incentive. Which contract will be used in this case?
1. CPPC
2. CPIF
3. CPFF
4. Fixed Cost


5. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in progress.
1. Conduct Procurements
2. Plan Procurements
3. Administer Procurements
4. Close Procurements

Answers

1. C. Administer procurements is part of Monitoring and Control process group.
2. D. This is a case of Staff Augmentation. These projects are managed in Time and Material.
3. A. Purchase Order is used i.
4. A. Cost plus percentage of the cost
5. A. During the Conduct Procurements process, bidders can clarify their doubts using bidder conference.

Questions on Project Time Management

perparepm is thankful to Neeraj Kanojia for providing these questions.


1. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:
1. Project Manager who created the WBS
2. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
3. Project Officer
4. Project Stakeholder


2. Which of the following is not an activity attribute:
1. Person responsible for the activity
2. Location where to perform the activity
3. Time when to perform the activity
4. Leads and Lags


3. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:
1. Define Activities
2. Sequence Activities
3. Estimate Activity Resources
4. Estimate Activity Durations


4. Which of the following may generate a milestone list:
1. Define Activities
2. Sequence Activities
3. Estimate Activity Resources
4. Estimate Activity Durations


5. In PDM, which of the following relationships is rarely used:
1. Finish-to-Start
2. Start-to-Finish
3. Start-to-Start
4. Finish-to-Finish


6. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of:
1. Finish-to-Start
2. Start-to-Finish
3. Start-to-Start
4. Finish-to-Finish


7. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of:
1. ADM
2. PDM
3. A dependency with lag
4. A dependency with lead


8. The following BEST describes a subnetwork:
1. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
2. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
3. Fragment Network
4. Activity-On-Node [AON]


9. A Project Manager in-charge of a Software Development projects is creating a project schedule network diagram for the code development component of the project. This is an example of:
1. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
2. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
3. Fragment Network
4. Activity-On-Node [AON]


10. What-if scenario analysis is done as a part of which process:
1. Sequence Activities
2. Define Activities
3. Develop Schedule
4. Control Schedule


11. AON refers to:
1. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
2. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
3. Fragment Network
4. Mandatory Dependencies


12. AOA refers to:
1. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
2. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
3. Fragment Network
4. Mandatory Dependencies


13. Activity Resource Requirements is an input to which of the following processes:
1. Estimate Activity Durations
2. Control Schedule
3. Estimate Activity Resources
4. Sequence Activities


14. Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which of the following Activity Sequencing techniques:
1. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
2. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
3. Fragment Network
4. Schedule Network Templates


15. Which of the following is NOT an input to the Sequence Activities process:
1. Project Scope Statement
2. Activity Attributes
3. Activity List
4. Change Requests


16. Which of the following is a technique for Sequence Activities:
1. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
2. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
3. Rolling Wave Planning
4. Mandatory Dependencies


17. Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
1. Define Schedule
2. Sequence Activities
3. Estimate Activity Resources
4. Estimate Activity Durations


18. Resource Leveling is a technique for:
1. Develop Schedule
2. Sequence Activities
3. Estimate Activity Resources
4. Estimate Activity Durations


19. Following can be BEST described as a kind of dependency that can create arbitrary float values and limit scheduling options:
1. Mandatory dependency
2. Discretionary dependency
3. Start-to-Finish dependency
4. External dependency


20. Critical path method is used in which of the following processes:
1. Sequence Activities
2. Define Activities
3. Develop Schedule
4. Estimate Activity Durations


21. Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:
1. Sequence Activities
2. Develop Schedule
3. Estimate Activity Resources
4. Estimate Activity Durations


22. Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is BEST done during which process:
1. Sequence Activities
2. Develop Schedule
3. Define Activities
4. Estimate Activity Duration


23. Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which Project Scheduling technique:
1. Critical Path Method
2. Schedule Compression
3. What-if Analysis
4. Resource Leveling


24. Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is MOST likely to give rise to which of the following dependencies:
1. Finish-to-Start dependency
2. Soft Logic
3. Mandatory dependency
4. External dependency


25. A Project Manager is preparing a Project Schedule network diagram. During the diagram development, she removes a dependency between two tasks that was defined in an earlier stage. After the network diagram is completed, she updates activity attributes for the two tasks. This is an example of:
1. Define Activities
2. Sequence Activities
3. Develop Schedule
4. Lack of change control


26. Reserve Analysis involves:
1. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate
2. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
3. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
4. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates


27. Which of the following is not true for Resource Leveling:
1. Project schedule is build with resource buffers to prevent schedule slippage
2. Project’s Critical path may be altered
3. Resource based scheduling method
4. Reverse resource allocation scheduling

Answers

1. Answer: B PMBOK Pg. 134
2. Answer: C Activity attributes are an input for project schedule development; therefore, the scheduling information is not a part of the activity attribute.
3. Answer: A. Project document updates is an output to all processes in Project Time Management process area except Define Activities.
4. Answer: A



5. Answer: B
6. Answer: A
7. Answer: D Note that this dependency can be represented by both ADM and PDM techniques.
8. Answer: C
9. Answer: C It is not clear what Activity Sequencing technique is the Project Manager using; however, it is evident that she is developing a schedule network diagram for only part of the project (not the entire project)



10. Answer: C
11. Answer: A
12. Answer: B
13. Answer: A One of the outputs of Estimate activity resources is Activity Resource Requirements. Sequence Activities establishes logical dependencies between activities. Activity Resource requirements do not play an important role in determining the sequence.
14. Answer: B



15. Answer: D Approved Change Requests is not a valid input to Sequence Activities process.
16. Answer: A
17. Answer: D
18. Answer: A
19. Answer: B



20. Answer: C
21. Answer: D
22. Answer: A
23. Answer: D



24. Answer: B Discretionary dependencies often result from best practices. This kind of dependency is also known as Soft Logic, Preferential Logic, or Preferred Logic.
25. Answer: D The Project manager is preparing the project schedule network diagram which implies she is in the Activity scheduling process. This process can generate changes to the Activity definition and Activity Attributes; however, such changes should go thru the Integrated Change Control and only upon approval should they be made.
26. Answer: B Answer C might seem more likely, but note the fine difference that Reserve Analysis is purely a technique of determining activity duration, not a schedule development technique.
27. Answer: A Resource leveling involves creating a resource constrained project schedule.

Questions on Project Scope Management

perparepm is thankful to Neeraj Kanojia for providing these questions. 


1. Completion of a product scope is measured against:
1. Product Management Plan
2. Project Management Plan
3. WBS & WBS Dictionary
4. Product Requirements


2. All of the below are inputs to Define Scope process EXCEPT:
1. Project Charter
2. Requirements Document
3. Organizational process assets
4. Project Management Plan


3. Validated deliverables is an input to which of the following processes?
1. Collect Requirements
2. Define Scope
3. Create WBS
4. Verify Scope


4. Project Charter is an input to all of the following processes EXCEPT:
1. Collect requirements
2. Define Scope
3. Create WBS
4. Develop Project Management Plan


5. Work Performance Measurement is an output of which process:
1. Define Scope
2. Create WBS
3. Verify Scope
4. Control Scope


6. If the project is terminated early, the level and extent of completion should be documented. This is done as a part of:
1. Define Scope
2. Create WBS
3. Verify Scope
4. Control Scope


7. Verify Scope can be BEST described as the process of
1. Verifying that the project quality requirements have been met
2. Obtaining stakeholder's formal acceptance of the project deliverables
3. Controlling changes to the scope of the project
4. Verifying that all of the project's objectives have been met


8. Which of the following can be BEST described as a characteristic of Work Package?
1. May or may not be cost estimated
2. Can be scheduled
3. Can be further decomposed into work packages
4. May be monitored subject to nature of the project

Answers

1. C.
2. D.
3. D. Validated Deliverables are output of Perform Quality Control process and acts as inputs to Verify Scope process.
4. C. Project Charter is input to all these processes except Create WBS.



5. D. Work performance measurement is an output of Control Scope
6. C
7. B. Verify Scope is the process of obtaining the stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope and associated deliverables. [PMBOK Pg. 123]


8. B. Work Package is the lowest level in the WBS, and is the point, at which it can be reliably scheduled, cost estimated, monitored and controlled.

Questions on Project Risk Management

1. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion. What is this document called?
1. Risk Management Plan.
2. List of risks.
3. Monte Carlo diagram.
4. Risk Breakdown Structure.


2. Which of the following statements is true about risks?
1. When evaluating risks their impact should be considered, however probability of occurrence is not important.
2. Risks if they happen always have negative impact and not positive.
3. Risk register documents all the risks in detail.
4. Risk response plan is another name for Risk Management Plan.
3. Beta is the Project Manager of a Road construction project. During a project review, Beta realizes that one particular risk has occured. To take appropriate action against risk that has happened, Beta needs to refer to which document?
1. Risk response plan
2. Risk management plan
3. Risk breakdown structure
4. Risk register


4. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact?
1. Identify Risks
2. Plan Risk responses
3. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
4. Perform Quantitative risk analysis


5. During which stage of Risk planning are modeling techniques used to determine overall effects of risks on project objectives for high probability, high impact risks?
1. Identify Risks
2. Plan Risk responses
3. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
4. Perform Quantitative risk analysis


6. Andrew is a Project Manager for Green Valley project. A risk management plan has been prepared for the project. Which of the following should Andrew do next?
1. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
2. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
3. Identify Risks
4. Plan Risk responses


7. Which of the following processes has risk register as the primary output?
1. Plan Risk Management
2. Identify Risks
3. Monitoring and Control Risks
4. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis


8. Five of the processes in Project Risk Management are from which process group?
1. Initiating
2. Planning
3. Executing
4. Monitoring and Control


9. John Strauss is a Project Manager for a reforestation project. To identify the risks involved, John sends a questionnaire to gather inputs from experts. Which technique is John using?
1. Delphi technique
2. Interviews
3. Brain storming
4. Documentation review


10. Mathew is a Project Manager for software migration at a bank. A major risk that has been identified is attrition of resources. As a strategy to respond to this risk, Mathew, with support from Senior Management, provides good increments to his team members. What type of risk response is Mathew following?
1. Accept
2. Avoid
3. Transfer
4. Mitigate


11. Which of these is a valid response to positive risks?
1. Exploit
2. Mitigate
3. Enhance
4. Share

Answers

1. d. Hierarchical description of risks is called Risk Breakdown structure.
2. c. Risk register documents the risks in detail.
3. a. Beta needs to refer to the Risk response plan that documents responses to identified risks.
4. c. Risk probability and impact are defined during Qualitative risk analysis.
5. d.


6. c. Risk identification is performed after performing the risk management plan.
7. b. Process of Identify Risks has Risk register as the major output.
8. b. Five of the six processes in Project Risk Management are part of the Planning process group.
9. a. John is using the Delphi technique to identify risks.
10. d. Mathew is mitigating the risk by reducing the probability of risk happening


11. Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may be responded by - "Exploit", "Enhance", "Share", "Accept".

Questions on Project Quality Management

perparepm is thankful to Neeraj Kanojia for providing these questions.


1. Process Analysis is a function of:
1. Performance Analysis
2. Quality Metrics
3. Process Improvement Plan
4. Quality Improvement Plan


2. Root Cause Analysis relates to:
1. Process Analysis
2. Quality Audits
3. Quality Control Measurements
4. Performance Measurements


3. Trend Analysis is often performed using:
1. Cause and Effect Diagram
2. Control Charts
3. Pareto Chart
4. Run Chart
5. Scatter Diagram


4. A Pareto diagram can be best described as:
1. Cause and Effect Diagram
2. Scatter Chart
3. Control Chart
4. Histogram


5. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of:
1. Inspection
2. Statistical Sampling
3. Flowcharting
4. Control Charting

Answers

1. C. A is incorrect as it relates to performing measurements to present performance. B is incorrect as it relates to the specific measurements that shall be performed on the project work in order to measure quality. C is correct because process analysis is simply execution of the steps outlined in Process Improvement Plan D is incorrect because Process Improvement Plan is not a part of Quality Improvement Plan (per PMBOK)
2. A. The option B is incorrect because a Quality Audit is to identify inefficiencies, non-compliance in project activities. It does not necessarily identify the root cause.
3. D. Run Chart shows the past pattern of variation. Trend Analysis involves forecasting the future trend based on past performance.
4. D. Note that Pareto diagram is not the best tool for root-cause analysis. It mainly helps the project management team to quantify and categories the defects/issues according to sources (e.g. engineering defects, acoustic defects, setup problems, etc)
5. B. "Inspection” is what the team is doing on individual drawings; however, the entire exercise of random selection and inspecting a work product is known as “Statistical Sampling”

Questions on Project Management Fundamentals

1. Which of the following is not a project?
1. Running an election campaign for a political candidate.
2. Building a bridge over a river.
3. Pilot aircraft for a United flight.
4. Writing a book on Project Management.


2. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?
1. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.
2. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase
3. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
4. All the above statements are correct.


3. At which stage, does a typical project has maximum cost?
1. Initial stage
2. Middle stage
3. Final stage
4. Cost is same at all stages.


4. At which stage, in a typical project do stakeholders have maximum influence?
1. Initial stage
2. Middle stage
3. Final stage
4. Shareholders have similar influence at all stages.


5. You are the Project Managers of XYZ consultants. The Project team members are from Finance and HR departments. The team members report to Finance and HR Managers respectively, and you have limited control over them. What type of organizational hierarchy does XYZ consultants follow?
1. Matrix organization
2. Projectized organization
3. Functional organization
4. None of these.


6. The Project Managers have maximum authority in which type of organization?
1. Weak Matrix organization
2. Balanced Matrix organization
3. Strong Matrix
4. Project Managers have same authority in the three types of organizations.


7. Which organization is closest to Functional organization?
1. Weak Matrix organization
2. Balanced Matrix organization
3. Strong Matrix
4. Projectized organization


8. Which of these is not one of the constraint of a project?
1. Scope
2. Resources
3. Team
4. Budget


9. There are two processes in the initiating process group. These are part of which knowledge area?
1. Project Cost Management
2. Project Scope Management
3. Project Time Management
4. Project Integration Management


10. Which of the following is a project?
1. Sending a weekly status report
2. Improving the roads of London for 2012 Olympics
3. Getting ready for office every day
4. Selling toys in a toy store

Answers

1. c. Projects must be a unique endeavor. Piloting a flight is a regular day-today operation, and not a project.
2. a. There is minimum requirement of personnel and hence minimum cost at the project initiation stage.
3. b. In the middle stages, the resources and cost usage is maximum.
4. a. It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have maximum influence at this stage.
5. c. The team members report to Functional Managers.


6. c. In strong matrix organization, Project Managers have more authority.
7. a. Weak matrix organizations have a similar characteristics to Functional organizations.
8. c. Projects constraints are - Scope, Resources, Quality, Schedule, Budget and Risk
9. d. The two processes Develop Project Charter, and Develop Preliminary Project Scope statement are part of project integration management knowledge area.
10. b. Other operations are ongoing operations and not projects.